30. An administrator cannot connect to a network volume. Which of the following is the best path for the administrator to use?
A. \\computername\C$
B. \\ipaddress\sharename
C. //computername/C$
D. http://computername/C
E. \\computername\sharename

Answer: A
Explanation: The UNC \\computername\C$ or \\ipaddress\C$ would be the best option. This allows the administrator to connect to the hidden share for the root of C. if the administrator has issues connecting to a network volume with a particular share name, they should use the hidden share. This can be done by computer name or by IP address. It would not be necessary to connect utilizing HTTP. Also, it is not wise to share the C: drive with a share name called “C”. See the section titled "File Security" in Chapter 15 "Security" for more information.

31. Your boss asks you to install a new wireless network. Which of the following should you implement on the wireless network to help prevent unauthorized access? (Select the two best answers.)
A. Install additional wireless access points
B. Use WPA2
C. Broadcast the SSID
D. Use a MAC filtering
E. install a signal booster

Answers: B and D
Explanation: By using WPA2 (the strongest type of encryption on most wireless access points) you ensure a high level of encryption, helping to reduce unauthorized access. Using MAC filtering filters out unwanted computers by checking their MAC address when the computers first try to connect. Additional wireless access points and signal boosters would increase the chances of unauthorized access. Broadcasting the SSID also increases the chance of unauthorized access, because any wireless device will see the name of your network. When all wireless devices have made their initial connection to the wireless access point, consider disabling the SSID broadcast. See the section titled “Installing and Configuring a SOHO Network” In Chapter 14 "Networking" for more information.

32. In Windows 7, which of the following enable administrators to perform administrative tasks that integrate scripts?
A. PowerShell
B. Command Prompt
C. Command-line
D. Windows Script Host

Answer: A
Explanation: The Windows 7 PowerShell enables administrators to perform administrative tasks that integrates scripts and executables. It is a combination of the Command Prompt and a scripting language. The PowerShell is the successor to the Windows Script Host. The Command Prompt is Windows version of a command-line. It is not as functional as the PowerShell. See the section titled "Windows User Interfaces" in Chapter 8 "Configuring Windows" for more information.

33. Which of the following tools should you use in Windows 7 to migrate user files and settings for multiple computers?
A. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard
B. Windows Easy Transfer
C. User State Migration Tool
D. Profile Transfer Tool

Answer: C.
Explanation: the User State Migration Tool (USMT) is a command-line tool that can be used to migrate user files and settings for one or more computers in Windows 7 as well as Windows Vista. Windows 7 and employs additional features such as AES encryption support and shadow copying of volumes of information. The Files and Settings Transfer Wizard is an older version of Windows Easy Transfer that is used with Windows XP, 2000 and other older operating systems. Windows Easy Transfer enables you to copy files, photos, music and settings, but not for multiple computers. See the section titled "System Tools and Utilities" in Chapter 8 "Configuring Windows" for more information.

34. Which of the following file systems is suited specifically for USB flash drives?
A. FAT32
B. FAT64
C. NTFS
D. FAT16

Answer: B
Explanation: FAT64 (also known as exFAT) is suited specifically for USB flash drives, and many other mobile storage solutions. It is the successor to FAT32, and can format media that is larger than 32 GB with a single partition. Older file systems such as FAT32 and FAT16 are very limited as to the partition size. NTFS can be a good solution for USB flash drives, but FAT64 was developed specifically for USB flash drives and is the better solution if you have an operating system that will support it such as: Windows 7, Windows Server 2008, Windows Vista with service pack one and so on. See the section titled "Files, File Systems, and Disks" in Chapter 8 "Configuring Windows" for more information.

35. Which of the following programs in Windows 7 saves problem descriptions and solutions?
A. Dr. Watson
B. Problem Reports and Solutions
C. Action Center
D. Performance Monitor

Answer: C.
Explanation: The Action Center in Windows 7 can save problem descriptions and solutions; this is done in the archived messages section. The Action Center could be considered the successor to the Problem Reports and Solutions of Windows Vista, and the grandsire of Dr. Watson in Windows XP. Performance Monitor is a program that tracks how much of your devices resources are being utilized, for example what percentage of the processor is used. See the section titled "Windows Tools and Errors" in Chapter 10 "Troubleshooting Windows" for more information.

36. Windows XP uses which of the following protocols to configure and monitor printer device status?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. IPX/SPX
D. IPP
E. DNS

Answer: B
Explanation: The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) can be used to monitor remote computers and printers. This requires the installation of SNMP on the appropriate hosts. SMTP is the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol which deals with the sending of e-mail. IPX/SPX is a Novell-based communications protocol that has been all but phased out by TCP/IP. IPP is the Internet Printing Protocol which allows hosts to print documents to a remote printer without the need for UNC paths. DNS is the Domain Name System which resolves domain names to their corresponding IP addresses. For more information on networking protocols see the section titled "Networking Fundamentals" in Chapter 14 "Networking" for more information.

37. A co-worker tells you that a program on their computer is collecting information such as the computer name and IP address and sending that information to a specific IP address on the Internet. What kind of threat is this an example of?
A. Spyware
B. Virus
C. Rootkit
D. Spam

Answer: A.
Explanation: Spyware is a type of malicious software that is usually downloaded unwittingly by a user or is installed by third-party software. It collects information about the user and the user's computer without the users consent. A virus is code that runs on the computer without the user’s knowledge; it infects a computer when the code is accessed and executed. A rootkit is software designed to gain administrator level control over a computer system without being detected. Spam is the abuse of electronic messaging systems such as e-mail. See the section titled "Malicious Software" in Chapter 15 "Security" for more information.

38. A customer of yours has a home office. Which of the following technologies would benefit from the use of QoS?
A. SSID
B. Instant messaging
C. E-mail
D. VoIP

Answer: D
Explanation: Voice over IP (VoIP) is a streaming telephony application. Streaming applications such as VoIP and online games can benefit from QoS. QoS stands for Quality of Service, which is the ability to provide different priorities to different applications. It guarantees network bandwidth for real-time streaming of the media applications such as VoIP. The SSID is the name or identifier of a wireless network. Instant messaging and e-mail are not treating applications, therefore they would not benefit from the use of QoS. See the section titled "Installing and Configuring a SOHO Network" in Chapter 14 "Networking" for more information.

39. Which of the following are descriptions or examples of unicast IPv6 addresses? (Select the two best answers.)
A. An address assigned to a group of interfaces where the packets are delivered to all interfaces
B. An address assigned to one interface
C. An address assigned to a group of interfaces where the packets are delivered to the first interface only
D. A loopback address of ::1

Answers: B and D
Explanation: Unicast IPv6 addresses are addresses assigned to one interface on a host. Examples of unicast IPv6 addresses include Global unicast addresses that begin at 2000, link-local addresses that begin at FE80::/10, and the loopback address ::1. Addresses assigned to a group of interfaces where the packets are delivered to all interfaces are known as multicast addresses. Addresses assigned to a group of interfaces where the packets are delivered to the first interface only are known as anycast addresses. See the section titled “Networking Fundamentals” in Chapter 14 “Networking” for more information.

40. Which of the following is the best solution for repairing a hard drive when a computer displays an “NTLDR is missing error” upon booting?
A. Recovery Console with the fixmbr command.
B. Recovery Console with the fixboot command.
C. Recovery Console with the chkdsk command.
D. Recovery Console with the bootcfg /rebuild command.

Answer: B
Explanation: The Recovery Console is a system recovery tool used in Windows XP and 2000. There are a lot of different commands that can be issued in this mode. If the NTLDR file has been damaged or is missing, it can be re-written to the hard disk by issuing the fixboot command while in the Recovery Console. NTLDR can also be manually copied from the CD-ROM disc if necessary. The fixmbr command will rewrite the master boot record of the hard drive. The chkdsk command will check the integrity of the disk. Bootcfg /rebuild can be used to scan for the operating system installations and rebuild that information into the boot.ini file. See the section titled “Repair Environments and Boot Errors” in Chapter 10 “Troubleshooting Windows” for more information.

41. Where can a user’s Desktop folder be found in Windows Vista by default?
A. C:\Users\%username%\desktop
B. C:\Documents and Settings\%username%\desktop
C. C:\System Volume Information\%username%\desktop
D. C:\Users\System32\%username%\desktop

Answer: A
Explanation: Every user profile gets a Desktop folder by default. This folder will be located within the user profile folder, which is shown in the answer as a variable %username%. In a standard Windows Vista configuration, the Documents and Settings and System Volume Information folders will be hidden and access will be denied. The System32 folder is inside the Windows folder, not the Users folder. See the section titled “Files, File Systems, and Disks” in Chapter 8, “Configuring Windows” for more information.

42. A technician gets a call from a customer with a Windows XP computer. The customer has just installed a new program. When the customer opens a file, it opens in a program that the customer does not want to use. Which of the following is the correct navigational path to change the file extension?
A. Control Panel > Tools > Folder Options > Offline Files > Advanced
B. Control Panel > Tools > Folder Options > View > Restore Defaults
C. Control Panel > Tools > Folder Options > View > Reset All Folders
D. Control Panel > Tools > Folder Options > File Types

Answer: D
Explanation: The File Types section of the Folder Options dialog box is where program associations can be set. The user has the ability to decide what programs will open any known file extensions. The other locations each serve a different purpose. Offline files can only be modified if fast user switching is turned off; however, this is not associated with file types. Restore Defaults and Reset All Folders deals with the file and folder settings but is not associated with file types. See the section titled “Files, File Systems, and Disks” in Chapter 8, “Configuring Windows” for more information.

43. You want to prevent Windows 7 from loading particular applications. What tool would you use to accomplish this?
A. Dir
B. Msconfig
C. Regedit
D. MD

Answer: B
Explanation: The System Configuration tool (MSconfig) can be used to modify how the system boots, what services will be loaded, and what applications will be loaded at startup. Dir will show the contents of a directory in the command-line. The Registry Editor (Regedit) is used to access and modify the registry database. MD is short for make directory; it is used to create directories or folders from within the command-line. See the section titled “System Tools and Utilities” in Chapter 8, “Configuring Windows” for more information.

44. You are building a new PC for a customer. Which of the following is the most valid reason why you would select SATA 2.0 over the original SATA 1.0?
A. You are installing an external SATA drive
B. You are attempting to implement hot-swapping functionality
C. You are trying to optimize the system for audio and video
D. You do not want to use jumpers

Answer: C
Explanation: SATA 2.0 (maximum transfer rate of 300 MB/s) can send and receive twice as much data as SATA 1.0 (maximum transfer rate of 150 MB/s). This makes it the better choice for audio and video applications and would be the most valid reason why you would select it for a new computer. When building a new computer, you would most likely start with an internal drive. You might add an external drive later, but regardless, just having an external drive is not a reason to use SATA 2.0 over SATA 1.0. SATA drives are not hot-swappable by default, whether they are internal or external. Special drive enclosures can be purchased to make an SATA drive hot-swappable however. Neither SATA 1.0 nor SATA 2.0 use jumpers. IDE drives are the most well-known for their use of jumpers. See the section titled “Magnetic Storage Media” in Chapter 6, “Storage Devices” for more information.

45. You are building a new PC and want to select a motherboard that will support the Scalable Link Interface (SLI) technology so that you can install two SLI video cards connected by a bridge. Which of the following expansion slots should the motherboard have for your two video cards?
A. Two AGP slots
B. Two PCIe slots
C. A PCI and PCIe slot
D. An AGP and PCIe slot

Answer: B
Explanation: For SLI to work properly, you will need two identical PCIe (PCI Express) slots. Although older SLI cards were available for PCI, the technology can not span different expansion slots. See the section titled “The Video Subsystem” in Chapter 12, “Video, Audio, and Peripherals” for more information.

46. Which of the following chkdsk switches can repair data from bad sectors? (Select the two best answers.)
A. /?
B. /R
C. /X
D. /F
E. /V

Answers: B and D
Explanation: /F is used to fix errors on the disk, which includes bad sectors. /R locates bad sectors only and recovers readable information; which implies a portion of /F. /? Is the help switch for the chkdsk command. /X forces the volume to dismount. /V displays the path and name of each file. See the section titled “Command-Line Tools” in Chapter 10, “Troubleshooting Windows” for more information.

47. How can an IDE hard disk be set up as a slave drive? (Select the two best answers.)
A. Set the hard disk’s jumper to the slave position
B. Configure the disk as a slave in the BIOS
C. Connect the hard disk to the secondary IDE port of the motherboard
D. Connect the hard disk to the slave connector of a cable select cable.

Answers: A and D
Explanation: The hard disk can be jumpered to the slave position and connected to the motherboard, or it can be jumpered to CS (cable select) and connected to the appropriate connector of the cable select cable. This needs to be done manually and physically; it is not set up in the BIOS. Both the primary and secondary IDE ports of a motherboard can have master and slave drives. See the section titled “Magnetic Storage Media” in Chapter 6, “Storage Devices” for more information.

48. One of your customers uses IMAP to download their e-mail. One day, the customer complains that their e-mail client is not downloading e-mail. Which port should you check is opened?
A. 110
B. 143
C. 25
D. 23

Answer: B
Explanation: Port 143 needs to be open to download e-mail via IMAP. Port 110 corresponds to POP3. Port 25 is SMTP. Port 23 is Telnet. See the section titled “Networking Fundamentals” in Chapter 14, “Networking” for more information.

49. Which type of motherboard enables the use of a riser card?
A. New Low-Profile Extended (NLX)
B. Advanced Technology Extended (ATX)
C. Balanced Technology Extended (BTX)
D. Micro Advanced Technology Extended (Micro ATX)

Answer: A
Explanation: NLX motherboards allow for the use of riser cards. They are common to computer manufacturers who wish to have a computer case with a small footprint, yet with the ability to have a lot of internal devices by building vertically and horizontally, making the most use of the space available in the case. The motherboard and case must be compatible. ATX, BTX, and Micro ATX don’t allow for riser cards. See the section titled “Motherboard Components and Form Factors” in Chapter 2, “Motherboards” for more information.

50. In Windows 7, which of the following command-line utilities is used to verify the integrity of protected system files?
A. Expand
B. SFC
C. Chkdsk
D. Chkntfs

Answer: B
Explanation: SFC (system file checker) is a command-line utility used to check the integrity of protected system files. It can replace incorrect versions and missing files. Expand is a command used to inflate compressed files such as those found on an installation CD (for example, ntoskrnl.ex_ can be expanded to ntoskrnl.exe). Chkdsk allows you to check for errors on a disk. Chkntfs can check to see if a previous system shutdown completed successfully. A typical option for SFC is /scannow, which scans all protected system files immediately. See the section titled “Command-Line Tools” in Chapter 10, “Troubleshooting Windows” for more information.

Hope you enjoyed those questions. Lots more where those came from in the 5th edition of the A+ Exam Cram: